it is refreshing to see someone actually dealing with the wider New Testament context concerning “unceasing prayer”. Thank you for pointing out that Paul does not refer to some mystic unheard non-stop prayer but rather he wants us to go into prayer very often during the day. I have had a discussion with a fellow who equates the Christians constant communion with God with prayer. Now it is true that prayer is always based upon our communion but it is not a congruent concept. The obvious question then is: Why would Paul command something that takes place by default anyway. If you want to check out that discussion it can be found under: http://jamaljivanjee.com/2012/05/in-order-to-pray-without-ceasing-you-must-quit-praying/

Blessings from Germany,

Alex

I would like your opinion: besides the KJV, what do you believe to be the most poetic Bible translation into English. Obviously, this is purely opinion, and I look forward to your answers.

personally, i find it very helpful.

And I am not sold by your vague negative comment by saying it simply as ODD. Forgive me if I am forthwith. God bless.

I’ve just become familiar with this site, for that reason have not been responding to others’ comments. Will try to do better now.

JV

ἀγαθός carries more the idea of “something (or someone) characterized by a goodness which provides salvation.” ‘Salvation‘ is an inherent component of the meaning. This sense is common in Jeremiah where both national and personal salvation can be referred to when this word is used. Apropos to this text is the fact that God is good and therefore salvation comes from him. Those two parts are inextricably connected. To this original audience, ‘goodness‘ is also associated with the Law (or Torah) in that adherence to the Law provides the salvation sought after. It’s the goodness of the Law.

Also, as can be seen from analysis of how ἀγαθός is used throughout Luke, wealth was seen as also providing salvation, or at least wealth provided the means by which one gains a more saved standing in life. The wealthy ruler is wondering how he can make this permanent (‘eternal’). One interesting example for translators where wealth provides salvation is the rich man building bigger barns–he’s storing up his salvation! ἀγαθός is used a couple of times in that text. Little did he know what was about to happen.

As you can probably tell, this understanding of ἀγαθός, as well as what the overall text sets before us regarding salvation (note the disciples astonishment and the head scratching we do, too), raises questions for us about the meaning of ‘salvation‘. For us, with a theology of “being saved is getting to go to heaven,” these uses of ‘salvation‘ cause us difficulty. It caused the disciples a problem, too, but for an opposite reason. For us, salvation is predominantly spiritual. For the disciples, it was far more physical. Both views aren’t quite right. Jesus deals with the disciple’s quandry by clarifying two temporal cases of when this salvation will occur. It is both now and in the future.

So, when the wealthy ruler says, “Good Teacher” he is setting an expectation that Jesus would provide some information which would bring about the wealthy person’s salvation and make it permanent. Jesus replies that for such a salvific result you’ll have to go to God himself. This echoes a similar statement where Jesus says that he only does what he sees the Father doing. Basically, “It’s not me. The salvific message comes from God. I’m just telling you what I’ve heard God say.”

Also, in answer to the disciples astonishment, Jesus indicates that human beings don’t have the goodness in them that provides for salvation–it’s impossible for them. But, because of God’s goodness, salvation is possible. It’s him; not us.

You know…it’s good to revisit this older posting. Thank you for commenting.

The Church that I’m a member is changing out there NASV pew Bibles for the ESV. I was curious and I checked out John 3:16 and this translation leaves out the word “begotton”. So they didn’t translate the Greek word “Monogenes” at all.” I rather have the NASV back.

Hi Craig,

In the original Greek of John 3:16 there is only a very slight difference between the word which would translate to English as “begotten” and the word that would translate as “only, unique”. A large number of conservative scholars today find the evidence stronger that the original Greek word there meant “only, unique”, not “begotten.”